I was going to say that whether the drug is easily acquired and used in Italy is irrelevant. All the players teams should know what substances are banned.
I don't think it's irrelevant, because different cultural attitudes towards certain things can breed a certain casualness. An example: what we call Neosporin in th US, or a triple antibiotic ointment sold OTC and in basically everyone's medicine cabinet, is available only by prescription in the UK. We were in Italy with a group of friends from the UK and their kids, and one of the kids cut her foot, which I doctored with Neosporin and bandaids I had brought, because, while 3 of the parents are medical doctors, they admitted that doctors are useless with their own children, and had brought nothing. One of the doctors remarked as to how good and how useful the ointment was, and seemed suddenly surprised that it wasn't more readily available in the UK. But he was clearly originally surprised that I just casually carried it. Not a banned substance, but I think you can see the point of the story.
There are differences in all cases but how Sinner’s was handled was very different. Its almost like he was presumed innocent.
He was fined, and docked points. He did not sit out any tournaments. It certainly was resolved quickly. I definitely agree the handling of it seemed preferential. However, you're mixing two different points, IMO. You're talking about how it was handled by the powers that be. I had already said I thought they went light on him. I was talking about the other part, which is the actual details, as we know them, about the specifics of the doping charges against a player. I don't think it's useful to conflate them. Whether or not players use banned substances is one problem. How tennis/WADA, etc. handle it is another.
A “plausible” explanation is now compelling evidence?
I'm not sure how to respond to this. A plausible explanation is a plausible explanation. Isn't it of a piece with presenting one's side of a story? Some explanations are not as plausible.