teddytennisfan
Multiple Major Winner
- Joined
- Oct 1, 2015
- Messages
- 3,166
- Reactions
- 498
- Points
- 113
This "observation" starts because people use their eyes
yes -=- like BBC told everyone ''THE RUSSIANS DID IT". that kind of ''eyes".
This "observation" starts because people use their eyes
no -- your counter example doesn't work.
rafa challenged roger at grass 3 times -- in finals -- proving rafa was nearly as good as roger on 2 first occasions -- the second of which was a mere few points at the fifht. no different than TWO GRASS PLAYERS ..
ON CLAY -- the supremacy of nadal is legendary over roger. everyone knows that.
therefore the WIN by rafa --
1 out of 3 in wimbledon is a BETTER measurement and argument that rafa was or could be as good as roger was on grass
of ONE HAMBURG on clay by roger over rafa in CLUMPS of defeat on clay..as an argument that roger was or could be as good as rafa on clay.
SINCE people like to use roger as the standard of ''completeness"
then how come he LOST TO RAFA ON ALL SURFACES far , far more often than rafa lost to roger?
and dont' give us this ''rafa won most of them on clay" nonsense
because ROGER'S 2 wins out of 3 on grass could also be used against rogerwinning over rafa on grass. "roger won mostly on grass". TWICE out of 3
oh i know that.
nonetheless -- roger got beaten to the punch.
doesn't matter what the 'intent' is.
REPUTATION isn't the same as actuality.
at net -- roger got beat - at the time when he was supposed to be the best ''at the net". by some 'baseliner".
THAT'S what collapses the argument.
in contrast -- but with the same result -- sampras when he was in hisdecline at wimbleodn got 'beat at the net" BY roger -- did that make sampras suddenly ''not the best?"
or roger ''better?" as rafa was over roger at their best days in wimbledon?
my point is -- the argument itself can be twisted any which way. and - imo -- having seen players from the days of mcenroe - to becker and sampras and roger and nadal and djokovic..
along with the changes in the game - the styles or preferences of players..
to single out a particular characteristic of roger that OTHERS in their times DO NOT DO much about -- that is -- regularly , ore or less, INITIATING an attack game towards the net -- does NOT by itself elect roger as more complete than the players who elect baseline game because that is how the game has evolved.
in the days of sampras -- a becker or sampras COULD play the baseline about as well as ''pure baseliners" -- particularly on more 'neutral ground" such as the hardcourts that at least gave them some equal opportunities to showcase their most characteristic features -- and therefore showed
a becker , a sampras, an ivanisevic more or less adept at both back and front.. in contrast to baseliners who were clearly not very adept as much at the net or in initiating it.
they were - in other words - NOT A RARITY so as to show people players who were ''complete"
and NOT because they were the only ones...
in the case of roger -- hardly anyone really did that -- and when ''someone did it' -- it was roger, THUS is born the IDEA of ''most complete ever" or more complete THAN his rivals.
WHEN YOU are a singer able to sing ten notes compared to a choir that sings 9 notes -- you are taken as 'exceptional'' even if the differences are almost nothing really.
no -- your counter example doesn't work.
rafa challenged roger at grass 3 times -- in finals -- proving rafa was nearly as good as roger on 2 first occasions -- the second of which was a mere few points at the fifht. no different than TWO GRASS PLAYERS ..
ON CLAY -- the supremacy of nadal is legendary over roger. everyone knows that.
therefore the WIN by rafa --
1 out of 3 in wimbledon is a BETTER measurement and argument that rafa was or could be as good as roger was on grass
of ONE HAMBURG on clay by roger over rafa in CLUMPS of defeat on clay..as an argument that roger was or could be as good as rafa on clay.
SINCE people like to use roger as the standard of ''completeness"
then how come he LOST TO RAFA ON ALL SURFACES far , far more often than rafa lost to roger?
and dont' give us this ''rafa won most of them on clay" nonsense
because ROGER'S 2 wins out of 3 on grass could also be used against rogerwinning over rafa on grass. "roger won mostly on grass". TWICE out of 3
This is true. I don't think people realize that they are only cherry-picking the things that they like about Roger, and discounting all of the areas where Federer is deficient. It doesn't work that way, which is why non-Federer fans don't agree with said analysis.
Since two years ego and playing doubles more often I think Rafa has better volley than Roger so far
What are these deficiencies?
Totally agreed!Everyone has deficiencies. Period. There is no perfect player.
No, he really, really doesn't. This literally isn't based on anything. Not numbers, not eye test, not nothing. And I say this as a Nadal fanboy. I'd like to see someone actually raise an argument, a real one, for Nadal having better volleys that isn't just absolute claims. As in, technical aspects that make Nadal's volleys better. Federer has a slightly better overhead (though it's close), miles better punch volleys, and better drop volleys. It's not even close.