calitennis127
Multiple Major Winner
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Basically, because of the definition of "fluke." You like to reinvent the definition of words, ("collapse" comes to mind, as a recent example,) but I really don't understand how you can insist that Roger beating Nadal in '07 and '11 were likely to the point of them being finals he "should" have won, beating Nadal in those matches, when you say that he only won in '09 because Nadal was absent. I.e., that he wouldn't have beaten Nadal that year, in a match that wasn't played.
You really are a creature of feeble reason. There is no contradiction at all here. I never said that Federer beating Nadal in 2007 or 2011 was "likely." That would have to be a prediction and I never went into those matches thinking that a Federer victory was "likely." I thought of them as highly possible if he played well, and that is a big difference from saying it was "likely."
For the record, if Federer had played Nadal in 2009, I believe it probably would have been very similar to 2007 and 2011 in that Federer would have won a set and dominated dozens of rallies only to give up leads, fail on breakpoints, and ultimately lose in 4 sets.
Also because, as I said above, Federer winning that tournament once Nadal was out was the expected outcome. The "fluke" would have been if Haas, who had a MP v. Roger in their match, had actually beaten him and gone on to win RG that year. Try to be more careful with your use of words.
Okay, Ms. Creature of Feeble Reason, let's operate off of dictionary.com definitions if you wish. Fluke: 1) an accidental advantage or stroke of good luck, 2) an accident or chance happening.
Based on those definitions, Nadal losing before the final was a "fluke" (definition #1), while Federer winning the entire tournament was also a fluke (definition #2). Words have different renderings at times. This is one of those examples.
I would say they fit in the same category vis-à-vis Nadal at RG in that, in their times, they have each been the 2nd best player on clay in many matches against him there, and, no matter how close Djokovic got, he only beat Nadal there in a very reduced form.
But Djokovic got much closer than Federer did to beating Nadal and that is a big difference. Djokovic was 10 minutes away from beating Nadal at Roland Garros in both 2013 and 2014. Federer never got that close.
Each was only able to win that title when he wasn't there to be played.
Djokovic absolutely kicked Nadal's ass in the 2015 quarterfinal so applying that argument to him makes no sense. Djokovic did get through Nadal that year and his loss to Wawrinka had nothing to do with Nadal.
You can try making that vastly different, but it really isn't.
It is vastly different. Djokovic got much closer to beating Nadal at Roland Garros on multiple occasions and his overall clay record against Nadal is far better than Federer's. You are lumping them together because you always prefer vague generalities.