brokenshoelace
Grand Slam Champion
- Joined
- Apr 14, 2013
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Ah, the whole early break in the fifth argument. My argument is that a guy who has won a record number of Wimbledon's shouldn't have played a C- level match and lose to a guy who can't beat world 2,000 on grass. Your argument is that a guy with 1 AO should've beaten one with 5, after being clearly outplayed most of the match and never leading until the first game of the 5th.
Ummm, where did I state Nadal should have beaten Federer at the AO? All I said was "the AO win for Roger was huge." That's literally my only argument. It was a huge win, especially since it COULD have gone the other way. Since it went to 5 sets and Nadal was up a break, AND he had historically owned Federer, I'm sure you agree it could have gone the other way. But it didn't. Roger played better and won. What's your problem exactly?
And I don't want to touch on the laughable Wimbledon argument since at the time, Nadal hadn't lost to nobodies at Wimbledon and he was reaching the final in every appearance. That's like saying Nadal beat a nobody in those FO's finals because Roger sucks on clay, as evidenced by the fact that he hasn't reached a semi there since 2012. Except, when Nadal was beating him, Roger was reaching the final at RG every year. You're applying Nadal's level on grass now to his level on grass then. Makes no sense.