El Dude
The GOAT
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OK, fair enough - you know Nadal's game far better than I, so I'll take your word for it.
It may go back to what I said in this thread or elsewhere--I can't remember--that a truly great player like Rafa (or Roger and Novak) only loses in his prime when either A) he is injured/not feeling well physically or mentally, and/or B) his opponent has a style or strategy that neutralizes his A-game.
I think where you and I both agree is that some degree of A and B were involved, whereas the diehard Rafa fans say it is only or almost entirely A, and the diehard Rafa-haters or Fedfans say it is only/mostly B. You and I might shake hands on either side of that aisle in the middle - not quite agreeing on to what degree it was A or B, but more moderate than the "extremists." Yes?
So if I take your word that Rafa was, indeed, at least somewhat impaired, and couple that with the obvious fact that Soderling was playing an incredible match, we see that the loss is due to both factors. It is just unclear to what degree.
If we look at it as a Likert scale from -3 to +3, with -3 being "injury only" and +3 being "Soderling beast mode only," and 0 being exactly even, then I'm guessing you're at -1 and I'm at +1...or something like that. And what I hear you saying is that it wasn't +2 or +3, but you're also saying it wasn't -2 or -3. Is that about right?
It may go back to what I said in this thread or elsewhere--I can't remember--that a truly great player like Rafa (or Roger and Novak) only loses in his prime when either A) he is injured/not feeling well physically or mentally, and/or B) his opponent has a style or strategy that neutralizes his A-game.
I think where you and I both agree is that some degree of A and B were involved, whereas the diehard Rafa fans say it is only or almost entirely A, and the diehard Rafa-haters or Fedfans say it is only/mostly B. You and I might shake hands on either side of that aisle in the middle - not quite agreeing on to what degree it was A or B, but more moderate than the "extremists." Yes?
So if I take your word that Rafa was, indeed, at least somewhat impaired, and couple that with the obvious fact that Soderling was playing an incredible match, we see that the loss is due to both factors. It is just unclear to what degree.
If we look at it as a Likert scale from -3 to +3, with -3 being "injury only" and +3 being "Soderling beast mode only," and 0 being exactly even, then I'm guessing you're at -1 and I'm at +1...or something like that. And what I hear you saying is that it wasn't +2 or +3, but you're also saying it wasn't -2 or -3. Is that about right?