hahahaha! You can't stop can you? Poor poor baby. I can see that even a basic explanation escapes you, so clearly your IQ is even lower than I thought!! Wow! Is someone helping you write this stuff? Out of sheer pity, I'll humour you, but really for adults it's basic syllogistic reasoning, so if you could only understand the original premise I wouldn't have to bother. But yes, absolutely...
Maybe this will help you?
Singles
Season record 68-15 (81.93%)
Calendar titles 3
Year-end ranking No. 2
Ranking change from previous year1
Grand Slam results
Australian Open QF
French Open W
Wimbledon F
US Open F
Doubles
Season record 9-5 (64.29%)
Calendar titles 1
Davis Cup
Davis Cup W
A year end ranking of no 2. He won one slam, lost 2 to Novak, and was a runner up in a stack of other matches to Novak. So yes, by definition he was dominant. Was he the most dominant player? Well... no! Novak was. But for Rafa to have reached all those finals is clear evidence that he was dominating the field, but losing to a more dominant player.
Now, I'm not even sure if you can read, so maybe you should ask the person who's helping you communicate on this forum, but here's a definition of the word dominant..."occupying or being in a commanding or elevated position." He was clearly in an elevated position, I dare say even a muppet knows that, but I was giving you far too much credit, you're no way near as smart as a muppet. I tried so hard not to point out the obvious, because I really thought you had enough brain cells to figure it out for yourself. I was so so wrong, and I'm sorry for that.
Perhaps you're confusing dominant with predominant? Anyway, lesson over. Now run along little boy, the next time I need to take you to school I'll be forced to charge you
ok then, so officially you declared that Rafa DOMINATED in 2011.
Ladies and gentlemen, please give your round of applause for Shemaleberg.... truly astonishing.