lob said:
Not sure where this belongs but since this thread started with Roger's schedule, I'm posting it here.
Guys, I need a bit of help here. I went back and saw the last set of 2014 Wimbledon final and I couldn't help feeling that that Roger 'deserved' to lose. Obviously, I was reflexively comparing him to the Roger that played the 5th set in AO17. Here is what I saw:
- not anywhere near as aggressive as he was this year. Not actively trying to finish points but waiting for an opportunity.
- overusing slice backhand. It was his go to shot on the backhand side. He had a drive BH but I didn't see the whole variety of BHs he has been routinely using this year.
- staying behind the baseline instead of hugging it like he has been doing this year.
- service return was much weaker may be because of the BH again.
- not swinging freely and not going for his shots.
- his return game was essentially at the mercy of the server. Naturally, he made more unforced errors on big points because he knew he'd get very few.
All that left me with the question. Why did he not try these changes earlier? It's like a switch turned on in his tennis brain all of a sudden this year. Hope it stays on :huh:. Also, what was the role of the new racket?
You have to remember that Roger only started playing with the 97 sq in racket full-time in Jan 2014. How many other players make racket changes and immediately make SF at AO, R16 at FO and F at W and SF at USO, win 73 matches and 5 titles? Stan made a racket change in 2011 and promptly fell from #14 to #29. It took him 2 years to get comfortable with the racket - and Norman - and get back into the Top 10. Roger said himself that he wasn't "super comfortable" with the new racket until this year. He also told Tennis Channel that he just didn't have the belief to drive the backhand more often because he used to shank so much with the smaller headed racket. The fact that he was even in 2 the Wimbledon final was testament to his talent - if not his belief in the new racket. He also said he brought in Edberg so he could start playing more aggressive tennis - and he did that in 2015 and got to the Wimbledon and US Open finals.
But - why is anyone surprised that Roger lost these matches? He's considered "past his prime," right? Older players in all sports pull their punches and over-think things that used to flow and come easily. Again, back to something Roger said about himself when asked about similarities with Kyrgios - maybe he has TOO MANY OPTIONS? Most players have A and B - sometimes C. Roger has A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H - and sometimes the whole damned alphabet.
Also, shouldn't the guy who is IN HIS PRIME and 6 years younger win these matches? Isn't it a testament to Djokovic's improved mental tenacity? And isn't he now in the exact same downward slide that happened to Roger, Sampras, McEnroe, Lendl, Agassi and every other great champion? Actually it's worse, but you get what I mean - he's not the player he was and now that he's shown vulnerabilities other players will come for him the same way Istomin did - and the same way he came for Roger.