Moxie
Multiple Major Winner
- Joined
- Apr 14, 2013
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I know you don't want to keep going back and forth about this, and you're correct...we're not changing each other's opinion, I guess. However, you've just said something slanted that you got called on recently, by JLLB, no less, a Fed man, and I won't leave it for others to read and take as true. Rafa didn't "skyrocket" up the ranks in 2005 out of nowhere. He was already ranked 34 in 2004 when he was still 17. That is already high for his age, and indicates a prodigy. As JLLB pointed out, he dropped down again due to injury. At 16 he was already beating Moya and Albert Costa on clay. At 17 he beat Roger on HC, and got a DC bump at the end of the year by beating Roddick (then #2) to give Spain the DC win over US. This led into his first big year, 2005. Borg also developed early, and Rafa is, to date, our last great teenager. But his early career tracks as a young phenom, not coming out of nowhere.
Post-2012, I would agree with you that that would have been when he would have logically looked for some mother's little helper, but, as the highest profile player under the most internet scrutiny due to old wives tales, it also would have seemed foolish. Though, I think you're implying that the 7-month injury lay-off was a "silent ban." That would have implied he was doping before 2012. But again, when and why would he have started there? Because of Djokovic? Sure, why not? But what change do you see that implies that it was doping that changed the dynamic with Djokovic in 2012? People like you like to speak in round terms about Rafa doping at some point in his career, but I've yet to see a good argument for when he would have started, and why, at that moment.
Post-2012, I would agree with you that that would have been when he would have logically looked for some mother's little helper, but, as the highest profile player under the most internet scrutiny due to old wives tales, it also would have seemed foolish. Though, I think you're implying that the 7-month injury lay-off was a "silent ban." That would have implied he was doping before 2012. But again, when and why would he have started there? Because of Djokovic? Sure, why not? But what change do you see that implies that it was doping that changed the dynamic with Djokovic in 2012? People like you like to speak in round terms about Rafa doping at some point in his career, but I've yet to see a good argument for when he would have started, and why, at that moment.